1. National and International Scenario of Skill Development
Q51. The national state view of purposes for vocational education includes the need to sustain productivity and
[A] updating
[B] employment
[C] ability
[D] None of the above
Answer: [B] employment
Q52. The term general education is sometimes used to mean the total education program, which includes both _______ and other types of educational programmes.
[A] lower
[B] higher
[C] general
[D] None of the above
Answer: [C] general
Q53. For skill development in India; more than 20 ministries/ departments run more than ______ schemes.
[A] 80
[B] 75
[C] 70
[D] 85
Answer: [A] 80
Q54. The emphasis is to skill the youth in such a way so that they get employment and also improve ______.
[A] leadership
[B] Kaushal
[C] discipline
[D] entrepreneurship
Answer: [D] entrepreneurship
Q55. National Policy for Skill Development and Entrepreneurship, 2015 has a prime objective to meet the challenge of skilling at scale with speed, standard (quality) and ______.
[A] recognition
[B] sustainability
[C] estimation
[D] responsibility
Answer: [B] sustainability
Q56. National Skill Research Division's (NSRD) role is to ______ including aggregation of the environmental scans.
[A] conduct certificate courses
[B] conduct vocational courses
[C] conduct skill surveys
[D] conduct trainings
Answer: [C] conduct skill surveys
Q57. Vocational training needs to be made aspirational to transform India into the ______ of the world.
[A] highest benchmark holder
[B] skill capital
[C] GDP holder
[D] aspirational model
Answer: [B] skill capital
Q58. ______ are designed to be national partnership organizations that bring together all the stakeholders -industry, labour and academia.
[A] Skill Development Councils
[B] Skill Measurement Councils
[C] Skill Planning Councils
[D] Sector Skill Councils
Answer: [D] Sector Skill Councils
Q59. ______ suggested that at school level, an attempt was made to teach a number of subjects around a certain craft with the interest of students.
[A] The Basic Education Scheme (1936-37)
[B] The Indian Education Commission (1882)
[C] The Hartog Committee (1929)
[D] None of the above
Answer: [A] The Basic Education Scheme (1936-37)
Q60. The Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship was setup in November, 2014 to drive the 'Skill India' agenda in a/an ______ in order to cover existing skill training initiatives and combine scale and quality of skilling efforts with speed.
[A] active mode
[B] mission mode
[C] passive mode
[D] vision mode
Answer: [B] mission mode
Q62. To facilitate mobility across general education and vocational education, ______ has been recommended by the National Education Policy (NEP) 2020.
[A] credit-based framework
[B] rank based framework
[C] course based framework
[D] point based framework
Answer: [A] credit-based framework
2. Status of Vocational Education in Madhya Pradesh
Q63. Sant Shiromani Ravidas (SSR) Global Skills Park was set up in M.P. with the help of the Government of ______.
[A] Japan
[B] Russia
[C] Singapore
[D] USA
Answer: [C] Singapore
Q64. Which of the following is not a partner in Madhya Pradesh Skill Department Project supported by Asian Development Bank?
[A] Tata Consulting Engineers Limited
[B] ITE Education Services
[C] Pricewaterhouse Coopers
[D] Hindustan Computers Limited
Answer: [D] Hindustan Computers Limited
Q69. In which year AICTE was set up as a statutory body by an Act of Parliament?
[A] 1988
[B] 1950
[C] 1962
[D] 1952
Answer: [A] 1988
Q70. AICTE offers Skill Development Scheme SAKSHAM. This scheme provides scholarship for ______.
[A] Faculty Development Scheme
[B] Institutional Development Scheme
[C] Student Development Scheme
[D] All of the above
Answer: [D] All of the above
Q71. The Directorate of Skill Development, Madhya Pradesh is located at which place?
[A] Jabalpur
[B] Bhopal
[C] Indore
[D] Gwalior
Answer: [B] Bhopal
Q72. Global Skills Park is committed to provide quality skill training in the field of ______ courses.
[A] international, Electrical Engineering
[B] national, Mechanical Engineering
[C] international, Value Engineering
[D] international, Precision Engineering
Answer: [D] international, Precision Engineering
Q73. The vision statement of Directorate of Skill Development, Govt. of M.P., is to provide quality training and employable vocational skills in the demand oriented ______, so as to transform the lives of youths' of the State.
[A] manufacturing and textile sectors
[B] education and cement sectors
[C] manufacturing and service sectors
[D] manufacturing and banking sectors
Answer: [C] manufacturing and service sectors
Q101. Which of the following is NOT a type of industrial training?
[A] Apprenticeship Training
[B] On-the-Job Training
[C] Vestibule Training
[D] Classroom Training for Theoretical Knowledge
Answer: [D] Classroom Training for Theoretical Knowledge
Q102. What is the primary objective of industrial training?
[A] To provide theoretical knowledge to employees
[B] To develop practical skills and competencies required for a specific job
[C] To promote social interaction among employees
[D] To enhance general knowledge of employees
Answer: [B] To develop practical skills and competencies required for a specific job
Q104. Which of the following is a benefit of "On-the-Job Training"?
[A] It is conducted in a simulated work environment.
[B] It provides immediate feedback and real-world experience.
[C] It is suitable for large groups of trainees.
[D] It requires specialized trainers and equipment.
Answer: [B] It provides immediate feedback and real-world experience.
Q105. "Vestibule Training" is commonly used for:
[A] Training experienced employees on new technologies
[B] Training new employees in a simulated work environment
[C] Training managers on leadership skills
[D] Training sales personnel on product knowledge
Answer: [B] Training new employees in a simulated work environment
Q106. What is the purpose of "Refresher Training"?
[A] To introduce new employees to the organization
[B] To update existing employees on new techniques and technologies
[C] To prepare employees for promotion
[D] To address performance deficiencies
Answer: [B] To update existing employees on new techniques and technologies
Q107. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of effective industrial training?
[A] Relevant to job requirements
[B] Interactive and engaging
[C] Focused solely on theoretical knowledge
[D] Provides opportunities for practice and feedback
Answer: [C] Focused solely on theoretical knowledge
Q108. "Cross-Training" involves:
[A] Training employees to perform multiple tasks within the organization
[B] Training employees from different departments together
[C] Training employees in different industries
[D] Training employees for international assignments
Answer: [A] Training employees to perform multiple tasks within the organization
Q109. The "Kirkpatrick Model" of training evaluation includes which of the following levels?
[A] Reaction, Learning, Behavior, Results
[B] Input, Process, Output, Outcome
[C] Planning, Implementation, Evaluation, Feedback
[D] Needs Assessment, Design, Development, Delivery
Answer: [A] Reaction, Learning, Behavior, Results
Q110. What is the role of a "Training Needs Analysis" in industrial training?
[A] To identify the skills and knowledge gaps of employees
[B] To determine the effectiveness of training programs
[C] To evaluate the performance of trainers
[D] To measure the return on investment of training
Answer: [A] To identify the skills and knowledge gaps of employees
3. Academic and Administrative Management
Q74. ______ management is concerned with the laying down of policies and preparing of plans. But ______ management is concerned with the actual execution of the plans through the various policies.
[A] Risk, strategic
[B] Strategic, operative
[C] Resources, administrative
[D] None of the above
Answer: [B] Strategic, operative
Q75. ______ level management formulates and provides functional strategy and guidelines for the first line managers.
[A] Lower
[B] Middle
[C] Top
[D] Small
Answer: [B] Middle
Q76. A ______ is an institution that accumulates knowledge and transmits the same to the public and succeeding generations and explores new knowledge.
[A] booklet
[B] library
[C] financial organisation
[D] None of the above
Answer: [B] library
Q77. "Personnel Management is the planning, organising, directing and controlling of the procurement, development, compensation, integration and maintenance and separation of personnel to the end that individual, organisational and societal objectives are accomplish
[A] Indian Institutes Management
[B] Indian Institute of Packaging
[C] All India Council for Technical Education
[D] Edwin B. Flippo
Answer: [D] Edwin B. Flippo
Q78. Affiliation is applicable to ITIs under scenario "New institutes seeking affiliation for new trades/new units". This belongs to which of the following categories (for the year 2018)?
[A] CAT 1
[B] CAT 2
[C] CAT 4
[D] CATS
Answer: [A] CAT 1
Q79. Madhya Pradesh Civil Services Rules was initially formed in which of the following years?
[A] 1963
[B] 1965
[C] 1967
[D] 1969
Answer: [B] 1965
Q80. The Madhya Pradesh Civil Services (CCA) Rules, 1966 is also known as:
[A] Conditions of Services Rules
[B] Conduct Rules
[C] Classification, Control and Appeal Rules
[D] None of the above
Answer: [C] Classification, Control and Appeal Rules
Q81. What is the full form of GFR in relation to Madhya Pradesh Civil Services?
[A] General Financial Rules
[B] General Fund Rules
[C] General Fiscal Rules
[D] General Finance Regulation
Answer: [A] General Financial Rules
Q82. Which of the following is the authority to issue directions regarding conditions of service of a government servant?
[A] Public Service Commission
[B] Finance Department
[C] Law Department
[D] General Administration Department
Answer: [D] General Administration Department
Q83. The head of a Government Department is the 'Head of Department' as defined under rule 2(h) of the Madhya Pradesh Civil Services (Classification, Control and Appeal) Rules, 1966. Who has the power to declare any officer or body as Head of Department?
[A] President
[B] Governor
[C] State Government
[D] Secretary, General Administration Department
Answer: [C] State Government
Q84. A government servant shall not normally be retained in service beyond the age of retirement. This rule is defined under which rule of Madhya Pradesh Fundamental Rules?
[A] FR 50
[B] FR 56
[C] FR 52
[D] FR 54
Answer: [B] FR 56
Q85. Under rule 23 of Madhya Pradesh Civil Services (Conduct) Rules, 1965, if a Government servant or any member of his family intends to publish any book or to participate in radio broadcasting or contribute an article or write a letter to the press, he shall seek prior sanction from whom?
[A] Chief Secretary
[B] Head of Department
[C] Government
[D] District Collector
Answer: [C] Government
Q86. What is the maximum percentage of women reservation for direct recruitment in Madhya Pradesh Government Services?
[A] 33%
[B] 25%
[C] 30%
[D] 40%
Answer: [C] 30%
Q87. "Appointing Authority" in relation to a service or post means:
[A] The authority empowered to make appointments to that service or post.
[B] The authority empowered to issue transfer orders for that service or post.
[C] The authority empowered to issue promotion orders for that service or post.
[D] The authority empowered to issue suspension orders for that service or post.
Answer: [A] The authority empowered to make appointments to that service or post.
Q88. Under the Madhya Pradesh Civil Services (Leave) Rules, 1977, a temporary Government servant shall be entitled to earned leave after completion of:
[A] 6 months of continuous service
[B] 1 year of continuous service
[C] 2 years of continuous service
[D] 3 years of continuous service
Answer: [B] 1 year of continuous service
Q89. As per rule 45 of Madhya Pradesh Civil Services (Leave) Rules, 1977, who has the power to grant special disability leave to a Government servant?
[A] Head of Department
[B] Appointing Authority
[C] Government
[D] District Collector
Answer: [C] Government
Q90. Which of the following is the primary objective of the Madhya Pradesh Public Service (Promotion) Rules, 2002?
[A] To provide for promotion opportunities for government employees.
[B] To regulate the process of promotion in government services.
[C] To ensure transparency and fairness in promotion matters.
[D] All of the above
Answer: [D] All of the above
Q91. "Work Study" is the systematic examination of:
[A] The way people work
[B] The methods of carrying out activities
[C] The use of resources
[D] All of the above
Answer: [D] All of the above
Q92. Which of the following are the two main techniques of work study?
[A] Method Study and Motion Study
[B] Work Measurement and Time Study
[C] Method Study and Work Measurement
[D] Motion Study and Time Study
Answer: [C] Method Study and Work Measurement
Q93. The aim of "Method Study" is to:
[A] Improve productivity and efficiency
[B] Reduce fatigue and effort
[C] Standardize working methods
[D] All of the above
Answer: [D] All of the above
Q94. The purpose of "Work Measurement" is to:
[A] Determine the time required to complete a task
[B] Optimize resource utilization
[C] Improve work processes
[D] All of the above
Answer: [A] Determine the time required to complete a task
Q95. "Time Study" involves:
[A] Observing and recording the time taken to perform a task
[B] Analyzing the movements of workers
[C] Developing standardized work procedures
[D] All of the above
Answer: [A] Observing and recording the time taken to perform a task
Q96. Which of the following is NOT a benefit of work study?
[A] Improved working conditions
[B] Increased labor costs
[C] Enhanced product quality
[D] Reduced waste
Answer: [B] Increased labor costs
Q97. "Motion Study" focuses on:
[A] Analyzing the movements of workers to eliminate unnecessary motions
[B] Measuring the time taken to complete a task
[C] Designing efficient workstations
[D] All of the above
Answer: [A] Analyzing the movements of workers to eliminate unnecessary motions
Q98. "Ergonomics" in the context of work study is concerned with:
[A] Designing workplaces and equipment to fit the human body
[B] Improving communication among workers
[C] Developing new production techniques
[D] All of the above
Answer: [A] Designing workplaces and equipment to fit the human body
Q99. Which of the following is a key principle of work simplification?
[A] Eliminate unnecessary steps
[B] Combine tasks
[C] Rearrange sequences
[D] All of the above
Answer: [D] All of the above
Q100. The term "Standard Time" in work measurement refers to:
[A] The actual time taken by a worker to complete a task
[B] The average time taken by a worker to complete a task
[C] The time allowed to a qualified worker to complete a task working at a normal pace
[D] The minimum time required to complete a task
Answer: [C] The time allowed to a qualified worker to complete a task working at a normal pace
4. Skill Development Schemes
Q61. National Skills Qualification Framework (NSQF) organizes qualifications according to, a series of levels of ______.
[A] knowledge, skills and achievement
[B] knowledge, skills and aptitude
[C] skill, experience and aptitude
[D] skill, achievement and aptitude
Answer: [B] knowledge, skills and aptitude
Q65. What is the minimum age for candidature in the Mukhyamantri Kaushal Samvardhan Yojana?
[A] 12 years and above
[B] 15 years and above
[C] 21 years and above
[D] 18 years and above
Answer: [B] 15 years and above
Q66. Which of the following is a State funded scheme under which the skill training program only for women is to be conducted in line with the employment oriented national standards?
[A] Mukhyamantri Kaushal Samvardhan Yojana
[B] Chief Minister Ladli Behna Yojana
[C] Mukhya Mantri Kaushalya Yojana
[D] Madhya Pradesh Nari Samman Yojana
Answer: [C] Mukhya Mantri Kaushalya Yojana
Q67. What is the duration of apprenticeship under National Apprentice Training Scheme of Apprentices Act amended in 1973?
[A] 6 months
[B] 1 year
[C] 6 months to 1 year
[D] More than 1 year
Answer: [C] 6 months to 1 year
Q68. Which of the following is not a short term shilling program for skill development?
[A] Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Kendra
[B] Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana
[C] Recognition of Prior Learning
[D] Schemes for Upgradation of ITIs
Answer: [D] Schemes for Upgradation of ITIs
Q103. "Apprenticeship Training" typically involves a combination of:
[A] Classroom instruction and on-the-job experience
[B] Online courses and self-study
[C] Simulations and virtual reality
[D] Group discussions and case studies
Answer: [A] Classroom instruction and on-the-job experience
5. Engineering Mechanics and Engineering Drawing
Q121. The force in newtons exerted by a 1 kg mass due to gravity is approximately:
[A] 1 N
[B] 9.81 N
[C] 10 N
[D] 0.1 N
Answer: [B] 9.81 N
Q122. The unit of power in the SI system is:
[A] Joule
[B] Watt
[C] Newton
[D] Volt
Answer: [B] Watt
Q123. What is the formula for calculating work done?
[A] Work = Force × Distance
[B] Work = Mass × Acceleration
[C] Work = Power × Time
[D] Work = Energy / Time
Answer: [A] Work = Force × Distance
Q124. If a force of 10 N moves an object by 5 meters in the direction of the force, the work done is: \
[A] 2 Joule
[B] 50 Joule
[C] 0.5 Joule
[D] 15 Joule
Answer: [B] 50 Joule
Q125. The mechanical advantage of a machine is defined as the ratio of:
[A] Input force to output force
[B] Output force to input force
[C] Work input to work output
[D] Work output to work input
Answer: [B] Output force to input force
Q126. A lever is an example of a:
[A] Simple machine
[B] Complex machine
[C] Hydraulic machine
[D] Pneumatic machine
Answer: [A] Simple machine
Q127. Which of the following is NOT a type of simple machine?
[A] Pulley
[B] Gear
[C] Inclined Plane
[D] Wheel and Axle
Answer: [B] Gear
Q128. The efficiency of a machine is always:
[A] Greater than 100%
[B] Less than 100%
[C] Equal to 100%
[D] Can be greater or less than 100%
Answer: [B] Less than 100%
Q129. The Law of Conservation of Energy states that:
[A] Energy can be created and destroyed
[B] Energy can only be created
[C] Energy can only be destroyed
[D] Energy cannot be created or destroyed, only transformed
Answer: [D] Energy cannot be created or destroyed, only transformed
Q130. What is the unit of energy in the SI system?
[A] Watt
[B] Newton
[C] Joule
[D] Pascal
Answer: [C] Joule
6. Fundamentals of Thermal Science
Q111. Which of the following is an example of a renewable energy source?
[A] Coal
[B] Natural Gas
[C] Solar Power
[D] Nuclear Fission
Answer: [C] Solar Power
Q112. The process of converting sunlight directly into electricity is called:
[A] Hydroelectric Power
[B] Geothermal Energy
[C] Photovoltaic Effect
[D] Wind Power Generation
Answer: [C] Photovoltaic Effect
Q113. Which of the following is a disadvantage of solar energy?
[A] High operating costs
[B] Intermittency
[C] Limited availability
[D] Environmental pollution
Answer: [B] Intermittency
Q114. "Wind energy" is harnessed using:
[A] Solar panels
[B] Wind turbines
[C] Geothermal pumps
[D] Hydroelectric dams
Answer: [B] Wind turbines
Q115. Which of the following is a benefit of wind energy?
[A] Noise pollution
[B] Visual impact
[C] Low carbon emissions
[D] High land requirement
Answer: [C] Low carbon emissions
Q116. "Hydroelectric power" is generated from:
[A] The heat of the Earth's interior
[B] The movement of water
[C] The burning of biomass
[D] The energy of tides
Answer: [B] The movement of water
Q117. Which of the following is a disadvantage of hydroelectric power?
[A] High fuel costs
[B] Dependence on weather conditions
[C] Displacement of communities
[D] Limited lifespan of power plants
Answer: [C] Displacement of communities
Q118. "Geothermal energy" utilizes:
[A] The heat from the Earth's core
[B] The energy from nuclear reactions
[C] The chemical energy stored in biomass
[D] The gravitational pull of the moon
Answer: [A] The heat from the Earth's core
Q119. Which of the following is a benefit of geothermal energy?
[A] Intermittency
[B] High initial cost
[C] Consistent power supply
[D] Emission of greenhouse gases
Answer: [C] Consistent power supply
Q120. "Biomass energy" is derived from:
[A] Fossil fuels
[B] Organic matter
[C] Radioactive elements
[D] Synthetic materials
Answer: [B] Organic matter
7. Basic Knowledge on Workshop Science
Q131. What is the primary purpose of a cutting tool in manufacturing?
[A] To hold the workpiece
[B] To remove material from a workpiece
[C] To measure dimensions
[D] To apply surface finish
Answer: [B] To remove material from a workpiece
Q132. Which of the following is NOT a common material for cutting tools?
[A] High-speed steel (HSS)
[B] Tungsten carbide
[C] Diamond
[D] Aluminum
Answer: [D] Aluminum
Q133. The "rake angle" of a cutting tool influences:
[A] Chip formation
[B] Tool life
[C] Cutting forces
[D] All of the above
Answer: [D] All of the above
Q134. "Cutting speed" is defined as the:
[A] Rate at which the tool advances into the workpiece
[B] Relative speed between the cutting edge and the workpiece surface
[C] Depth of cut taken by the tool
[D] Time taken to complete a machining operation
Answer: [B] Relative speed between the cutting edge and the workpiece surface
Q135. Which of the following machining operations uses a multi-point cutting tool?
[A] Turning
[B] Milling
[C] Drilling
[D] Both B and C
Answer: [D] Both B and C
Q136. "Tool wear" is a phenomenon where:
[A] The cutting tool becomes dull and loses its effectiveness
[B] The workpiece material becomes harder
[C] The machine vibrates excessively
[D] The cutting fluid evaporates
Answer: [A] The cutting tool becomes dull and loses its effectiveness
Q137. "Cutting fluids" are used in machining to:
[A] Reduce friction and heat
[B] Improve surface finish
[C] Flush away chips
[D] All of the above
Answer: [D] All of the above
Q138. Which of the following is a type of "chip" formed during machining?
[A] Continuous chip
[B] Discontinuous chip
[C] Segmented chip
[D] All of the above
Answer: [D] All of the above
Q139. "Machinability" refers to:
[A] The ease with which a material can be machined
[B] The hardness of a material
[C] The strength of a material
[D] The ductility of a material
Answer: [A] The ease with which a material can be machined
Q140. "Surface roughness" in machining is influenced by:
[A] Feed rate
[B] Tool nose radius
[C] Cutting speed
[D] All of the above
Answer: [D] All of the above
10. CIVIL
Q141. The term "cement" primarily refers to:
[A] A binding material used in construction
[B] A type of concrete
[C] A mixture of sand and gravel
[D] A form of asphalt
Answer: [A] A binding material used in construction
Q142. The main raw materials used in the manufacture of Portland cement are:
[A] Clay and sand
[B] Limestone and clay
[C] Gypsum and water
[D] Aggregate and water
Answer: [B] Limestone and clay
Q143. Which of the following is NOT a type of cement?
[A] Ordinary Portland Cement (OPC)
[B] Rapid Hardening Cement
[C] White Cement
[D] Timber Cement
Answer: [D] Timber Cement
Q144. The process of adding water to cement to initiate the chemical reaction is called:
[A] Curing
[B] Mixing
[C] Hydration
[D] Setting
Answer: [C] Hydration
Q145. Construction equipment 'Dragline' is used for the:
[A] excavation above its own track or wheel level
[B] bulk excavation in loose soils below its own track level
[C] site stripping and levelling, loading, hauling and discharging over long distance
[D] compaction of earth
Answer: [B] bulk excavation in loose soils below its own track level
Q146. EDTA (Ethylenediamine tetraacetic acid) method is used to determine:
[A] iron in water
[B] chlorides in water
[C] turbidity of water
[D] hardness of water
Answer: [D] hardness of water
Q147. Sewage will be identified as 'acidic', when its pH value will be:
[A] more than 7
[B] equal to 7
[C] less than 7
[D] equal to 0
Answer: [C] less than 7
Q148. Among the following air pollutants, the only secondary pollutant is:
[A] ozone
[B] sulphur dioxide
[C] carbon dioxide
[D] carbon monoxide
Answer: [A] ozone
Q149. National Clean Air Programme (NCAP) was launched in:
[A] 2014
[B] 2019
[C] 2022
[D] 2016
Answer: [B] 2019
Q150. A reservoir with uncontrolled and ungated outlets (spillway and sluice outline) is known as:
[A] storage reservoir
[B] detention reservoir
[C] flood control reservoir
[D] distribution reservoir
Answer: [B] detention reservoir
No comments:
Post a Comment